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sub 2005.08.10 07:35 
Does any body knows why there is a several pips gap between closing of one candle and opening of the next one. For example FXCM data have open equal to close of prior candle.
How do you use this discrepancy in a calculation?
Is there any missing time between the candles?
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hardwood 2005.08.10 17:23 
In my understanding, the close is the last trade or a bar and the open is the first trade of a bar.. so they will be the same only if the two consecutive trades are at the same level.

best regards,

Hugh
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